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Archived: 07 Aug 2014, 09:54
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Sameed Zahoor
Joined: 12 Mar 2008, 10:57 Posts: 69 Location: India
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 Exercise [16.10]
Let "a" be a mapping from B to A and "b" be another map from A to B. Our aim is to find a 1-1 onto map from A to B. Assume 'a' and 'b' are into functions for if 'a' was onto then 'a~' ('a' inverse) would do the job and if 'b' was onto then it would itself be the required function. Now apply a~ to A (if possible),then b~ to a~A(if possible),then again a~ to b~a~A and so on...Such a sequence of steps will either continue forever or will terminate.If it terminates,it would do so in either an even or an odd number of steps.Hence, A can be partitioned into 3 disjoint classes whose union is A.Call them as follows; A(inf) : infinte number of steps to terminate, A(even): even number of steps, and A(odd): odd number of steps. Similarly divide B into B(inf),B(even) and B(odd). We see that b maps A(inf) onto B(inf),A(even) onto B(odd) and a~ maps A(odd) onto B(even).Now define a function 'f' such that
f(x)= b(x) if x belongs to A(inf) or A(even) f(x)= a~(x) if x belongs to A(odd)
which is the reqd. one to one onto function.
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02 Apr 2008, 08:01 |
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jbeckmann
Joined: 22 Apr 2010, 15:52 Posts: 43 Location: Olpe, Germany
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 Re: Exercise [16.10]
Here's an illustration for the solution of Sameed Zahoor: Attachment:
File comment: Illustration
Exercise16_10.pdf [32.44 KiB]
Downloaded 239 times
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20 Aug 2010, 14:57 |
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deant
Joined: 12 Jul 2010, 07:44 Posts: 154
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 Re: Exercise [16.10]
Actually, with all due respect to J. Beckmann for his effort, I think there's a clearer way to diagrammatically represent the solution to this exercise. (Attached).
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16 Apr 2011, 18:36 |
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